![Hebrew words surrounding "shalom," which means peace in Hebrew. - Art by Sefira Lightstone](https://w2.chabad.org/media/images/994/zCeW9948669.jpg?_i=_n32DD4A5CE5B405756B86D11830CBE5B1 "Hebrew words surrounding "shalom," which means peace in Hebrew. - Art by Sefira Lightstone")
My Sepharadi friends celebrate Shabbat, and my Ashkenazi friends call it Shabbos. The Sepharadim call a groom a chatan, and the Ashkenazim refer to him as a chosson. To bolster their claim, the Sepharadim evoke modern Hebrew pronunciation, which follows their tradition. What’s the right way to speak Hebrew?
Response
Language and the way we speak is constantly evolving. For example, it has only been several hundred years since the British began colonizing, and Americans, South Africans and Australians all have distinct ways of speaking English. Likewise, Hebrew evolved differently in various Jewish communities. When you consider that Jews have been on the go for two millennia, it is a miracle that we have managed to keep our Hebrew as consistent as we have—especially since Hebrew has primarily been a second language since the Babylonian exile.
So while it’s tempting to make sweeping generalizations and just split the different pronunciations into Sepharadic and Ashkenazic, in truth, there are many variants in Ashkenaz and Sepharad themselves. Let’s explore the origins of the divide, the major differences and the practical implications.
Origins of Sepharad and Ashkenaz
In the literal sense, Sepharad refers to the Iberian peninsula (Spain, Portugal, etc.), and Ashkenaz refers to Germany and the “Holy Roman Empire.” However, when referring to “Sepharadi Jews,” the term has grown to encompass Jews from the Mediterranean regions, including Spain, Greece and North Africa (and many times the Middle East as well). And “Ashkenazi” has come to include Jews hailing from places such as Eastern and Central Europe, including countries such as Hungary, Lithuania, Poland and Russia.
Over time, Ashkenaz and Sepharad developed distinct pronunciations for Hebrew. However, there is much debate over the origins of these dialects. Some say the split occurred in Medieval Europe.1 Others say that the split can be traced back to the Geonic period (7th–11th centuries), with the Ashkenazic dialect developing in Israel (Palestine) and the Sepharadic in Babylonia.2 Yet others say the divide can be traced still further, to Mishnaic times (1st−2nd centuries)—the Sepharadic pronunciation was derived from the Judean dialect of Hebrew and the Ashkenazic from the Galilean.3
Regardless of which theory one subscribes to, it’s clear that the distinct pronunciations go back quite a bit. In fact, there were always various ways of pronouncing Hebrew words. In biblical times, the tribe of Ephraim was unable to pronounce the word shibolet (or shiboles for the Ashkenazim among us) the same as their compatriots from the other 12 tribes.4 And in Talmudic times, some towns didn’t differentiate between the letters alef and ayin (which Ashkenazim today commonly don’t do either).5
The Basic Differences Between the Two
On a very basic level, Ashkenazic pronunciation tends to differentiate between more of the vowels. Kamatz and patach are pronounced “oh” and “ah,” respectively, and tzayray and segol are differentiated as “ay” and “eh.” On the other hand, Sepharadim pronounce both kamatz and patach as “ah,” while tzaray and segol are both pronounced as “eh.”
Ashkenazim don’t differentiate between the chet and chof; Sepharadim do. Ashkenazim pronounce the non-accented tav similar to the samech, while most Sepharadim pronounce it like the tet.
(There are some differences that have evolved but are not “official” distinctions. For example, certain Yiddish-influenced Ashkenazim say “oy” (or “ay” or “ow”) where Sepharadim say “oh.”)
Of course, this is a gross oversimplification, and there are many variants within Ashkenazic and Sepharadic pronunciations. It should be noted that in ancient Hebrew, all letters and vowels had distinct sounds, and both Ashkenaz and Sepharad have lost some of those distinctions. (The Yemenite pronunciation is perhaps the most correct, but that deserves an article of its own.)
| Pronunciation Differences | Ashkenazic | Sepharadic |
|---|---|---|
| Kamatz | oh | ah |
| Tzayray | ay | eh |
| Cholam | oy / ay / ow | oh |
| Differentiation between Chet and Chof | No | Yes |
| Differentiation between Aleph and Ayin | No | Yes |
| Non-accented Tav pronunciation | S | T |
If You Speak Modern Hebrew
Modern Hebrew is a simplified hybrid in which the nuances of both traditions are lost. Thus, while Ashkenazim may view it as Sepharadic, it has the weaknesses of both Sepharad and Ashkenaz. It also maintains the (probably incorrect) uvular trill for resh, which was probably introduced via the French and German origins of Ashkenaz.
Although today many Jews (both Ashkenazim and Sepharadim) learn to read and pronounce Hebrew in accordance with the modern (“Sepharadic”) pronunciation, there is lively debate whether an Ashkenazi may pray in that dialect.
Some Ashkenazim claim that even if you generally use this pronunciation, when you say G‑d’s Name (A-do-nai) you should follow the Ashkenazic pronunciation of A-do-noy. They explain that adonai simply means “my masters,” and the word is only sacred when pronounced A-do-noy, a nuance that does not exist in the Sepharadic tradition.6 They go so far as to say that Sepharadim are not pronouncing G‑d’s Name properly.7
Others counter that a) regardless of whether G‑d’s Name is pronounced “-nai” or “-noy,” it is always plural (as Maimonides explains, this name of G‑d is intentionally plural8); and b) there are many Sepharadic grammarians who do in fact distinguish, albeit very subtly, between the two versions of the word.9
In practice, all dialects of Hebrew are acceptable.10
The Lubavitcher Rebbe addresses the differences in pronunciation by referring to the Arizal’s explanation regarding the differences in Sepharadic and Ashkenazic customs.11 While all Jews are equally bound by the basic Torah laws, there are many customs that have evolved differently in various communities. These customs correspond to spiritual gates through which one connects to G‑d. Thus, one should follow the customs of his forebears.12
Therefore, the Rebbe writes that he sees no reason why one should change from the pronunciation that he is used to. However, if one does have reason to change his pronunciation, he should make sure to be consistent and pray the entire prayer (including G‑d’s Name13) with the same pronunciation, be it Sepharad, Ashkenaz or Modern Hebrew.14
Although the pronunciation of our prayers, as well as some of the wording, may vary from community to community, we are all united in praying for one thing: the end of pain and suffering in this bitter exile and the coming of Moshiach, may it be speedily in our days!
The guttural resh was present in descriptions of Tiberian and Babylonian pronunciation and even in description in the Sefer Yetzirah from Roman time, so it has nothing to do with French or German, neither of which is actually typically identical to an Israeli resh. It was also present in the ancient Akkadian and can be inferred in Ugaritic and ancient Hebrew/Canaanite dialect that the order of the alphabet was based on.
Post the descriptions of a guttural resh for Tiberians & Babylonians. I've heard Babylonian Hebrew from Iraqi immigrants from the 1950's & their resh is, surprisingly, guttural, something like a ghimmel. I would expect Yemenite Hebrew, which has the Tiberian lack of seghol, to have a similar resh, but they have two different ones. One that sounds like, believe it or not, an AMERICAN resh (but soft), while the other sounds like a Russian, Arabic, Hungarian, Spanish, Italian resh. Neither are guttural. How can your prove Tiberian/Babylonian guttural reshim were not similar to French/German reshim? How are differences between the two represented in writing? I would imagine that Avraham's resh came from Akkadian/Sumerian/Ugarit/Hittite (Cana'anite) influence to carry over to Hebrew.
While that is true, it mostly shows up in diasporic pronunciations where neighboring non-Jews also used it. So with regard to (some) Ashkenazi pronunciations (which is really the basis for modern Hebrew consonantal pronunciation), it's definitely related to French/German R. And classically, resh *should* be rolled, as it is in the vast majority of languages/dialects throughout the Mediterranean and Middle East.
Tiberian guttural resh for example was mentioned in an Arabic work called Hidayat Al-Qari from the Cairo Genizah. Saadia Gaon discusses the Babylonian resh. Looks for papers by E.J. Revell on resh.
SOOO COOOL!!!! I've run into this in ENGLISH as well & couldn't understand how GYKRQ include R!!!
The etymology of "affect" is to "do."
But the same is true of "affair!"
I could not see the relationship between these two words because I assumed that "c" & "r" are unrelated. I was STUNNED to see that "affect" & "affair" are from the same etymology!!!
Since that R is GUTTURAL, then it belongs in the GYKQ group!
OUTSTANDING! Thank you for this, Chayyim!!!
In previous generations, Yemenite Jewish men had a different R than their women.
It's an American R. Would you consider that R to be guttural???
It doesn't feel like it. Maybe it was different? But that doesn't help with the male Yemenite R.
Roadblock. If you have any insight, I'd love to hear it. The wiki on guttural R brings a lot. My phonetics professor brought this up in a lecture in Bar Ilan about the R shift which I assumed as laziness like Syrian Arabic's shift from q to a (qaddish vs. addish). Many thanks!
Ashkenazi is most definitely not the basis of modern Hebrew consonantal pronunciation. Modern Hebrew pronunciation derives from the Jerusalem pronunciation of Hebrew in the Ottoman era Old Yishuv. The only time there was a significant number of olim from French / German speaking areas was during Aliyah Bet by which time modern Hebrew was already well established. Earlier olim from Europe came primarily from Eastern Europe where the languages do not have a guttural rhotic - they went out of their way to learn how to pronounce the resh of the Old Yishuv which resembles that of local Arabic ghayn (not the French R which is typically more trilled or the German which typically more forward) and rejected Ashkenazi pronunciation of Hebrew.
Sefer Yetzirah describes hard and soft resh, the hard would have been rolled more like a modern French R, but resh as a whole is grouped there with the sounds made by baring and blowing through the teeth and not sounds made by tongue movement.
French R isn't "rolled...." The correct and almost-universal pronunciation of Resh is like Arabic Ra or Spanish/Italian R. Modern Hebrew consonantal pronunciation is most definitely Ashkenazi-derived, hence the absence of any difference between Het and Khaf, the pronunciation of Sadi as Tz, absence of difference between Kaf and Qof, silent 3ayin, absence of rolled Resh, etc. Most, if not all, of these were/are present in the majority of Hebrew pronunciations in communities that lived in Semitic-speaking environments, and almost entirely missing from Ashkenazi pronunciations.